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"On this point there are specified hadith as well as the general hadith which state that a woman who enters into mut'a is 'rented'."

(source:Al-Islam.org,http://www.al-islam.org/al-serat/muta/3.htm)

In another place, Al-Islam.org continues:

"In other words, she has been 'rented' for the purpose of sexual intercourse"

(source:Al-Islam.org,http://www.al-islam.org/al-serat/muta/4.htm)

If one reads Shia Hadith, it becomes very clear that the woman is treated as "rented" property. In fact, the Shia books of Fiqh contain a section entitled "The Loaning of Vaginas." A "gangsta" rapper once said that he would "rent booty by the hour"; one can understand such vulgar speech from a hoodlum, but it is very perplexing when the Shia Ulema and scholars of Hadith use similar terminology whereby they claim that men "rent" women, and that too by the hour!

The Shia website, Al-Islam.org, says the following about Mutah:

"If the role of the time period is to contain a stipulated number of sexual acts, whenever the number is finished, the woman is free of any further obligation to the man."

(source:Al-Islam.org,http://www.al-islam.org/al-serat/muta/3.htm)

Mutah is very similar to prostitution: after the woman does a certain number of sexual acts on the man, then she is free from him after that. Is this not the attitude of the Kufaar who have the vulgar philosophy of "wham, bam, thank you ma'am"? Subhan-Allah, can this really be the religion of guidance which allows such a thing?

According to Shia Fiqh, a man "rents" a woman for a specified number of hours or days during which he can have sex with her. But if on certain days she doesn't have sex with him, then the price he pays for her goes down. The exception is her menstruation days since it is impermissible to have sexual relations on those days. The Shia website, Al-Islam.org, says:

"A man came to the Imam Ja'far and said: 'I concluded a contract of mut'a with a woman for one month for a given amount, But the woman only came to me for part of the month, and part she stayed away.' The Imam replied: 'An amount should be held back from her dower equivalent to the amount she stayed from you, except for the days of her menstruation, for those belong to her.'"

(source:Al-Islam.org,http://www.al-islam.org/al-serat/muta/3.htm)

The price the man pays the woman (i.e. the dower) goes down if she doesn't have enough sex with him; it would not be a stretch to say that the Shia scholars are nothing but pimps who closely regulate the institution of prostitution under the guise of religion.

In the Shia Mutah, the man can regulate when he wants to see the woman; it is very common, for example, for the man to stipulate that he only wants to see her at night-time. In other words, he simply wants to have sex with her and does not want to have anything else to do with her for the rest of the day. The Shia website, Al-Islam.org, says:

"It is permissible for the contract to stipulate as a condition a particular time for meetings between the husband and wife, such as daytime or night-time. As already mentioned, it is also permissible for a given number of sexual acts for a given period to be stipulated, as for example, during one day or over the whole period of the marriage."

(source:Al-Islam.org,http://www.al-islam.org/al-serat/muta/4.htm)

It is altogether amazing how Shi'ism facilitates the defiling of women and makes it easy for men to do that. In a normal marriage, man and wife must jointly make the decision to perform coitus interruptus (i.e. prevent pregnancy). However, in the Shia Mutah, the right is given to the man completely. We read that there is:

"...a consensus of the ulama' on this point. They say the consensus derives from a hadith reported from the Imam Ja'far: 'That [semen] belongs to the man: he may expend it as he wishes.'" [9]

(source:Al-Islam.org,http://www.al-islam.org/al-serat/muta/4.htm)

And what about the egg (i.e. ovum) which belongs to the woman? Why is it that she has no right in preventing the pregnancy when the ovum belongs to her? In Shia Fiqh, it is Haram for the woman to prevent the pregnancy without the permission from the man, and yet the man has the right to do so without the permission of the woman. This is quite the double standard.

The Shia Ulema make it clear that Mutah is done for sex, and that this is the basic aim. We read:

"In contrast to permanent marriage, the basic aim of mut'a is enjoyment, not the production of offspring." [10]

(source:Al-Islam.org,http://www.al-islam.org/al-serat/muta/4.htm)

In a marriage, the basic aim is to create a family bonded by love and affection for all time. On the other hand, the Shia Mutah is just for enjoyment, whereby a man can enjoy renting out women, without any responsibilities on the man. If the woman becomes pregnant during Mutah, then the husband has the option of seizing custody of the child:

"If the woman becomes pregnant such that the pregnancy derives from the period of mut'a, the child belongs to the husband, even if he performed coitus interruptus."

(source:Al-Islam.org,http://www.al-islam.org/al-serat/muta/4.htm)

So the man has the right to seize the custody of the child, but in Shia Fiqh, the man can have his cake and eat it too. If he simply wants to deny the child, then he can also do that. In other words, the man has the right to either seize the custody of the child or simply abandon the child, based upon his own whim. We read:

"However, if the man should deny the child, then it does not belong to him; the 'sworn allegation' required in permanent marriage is not necessary...sworn allegation is unnecessary in mut'a...his word alone will be accepted and there is no need for him to make a sworn allegation (i.e. that the child is not his)...in the case of denying parentage, by a consensus of the ulama' it is unnecessary for the man to make the sworn allegation."

(source:Al-Islam.org, http://www.al-islam.org/al-serat/muta/4.htm

In other words, a man can have sex with a woman by "renting" her, but absolve himself of all responsibilities; if the woman should get pregnant as a result of the Mutah, he can simply deny it and the Shia court would not even require the man to take an oath to God about the matter! In fact, the Shia Fiqh is very specific on this point, namely that the man is excused from swearing to God about such a matter. The consequence is that the poor woman would be forced to take care of the child as a single mother without support from the father.

Even the Kufaar living in the West have better morals than this, for they force a man to pay child support if he engages in fornication that results in a pregnancy. On the other hand, the woman who does Mutah has no such rights; to explain this, we read what Al-Islam.org says:

"Al-Shahid al Thani, al-Shaykh al-Ansari and al-Shaykh Muhammad al-Hasan claim consensus on this question. They point out that the 'bed of mut'a' does not hold the same high position as the bed of a permanent wife, since a wife by mut'a is a 'rented woman'. [13] On this point two hadith have been recorded. [14]"

(source:Al-Islam.org,http://www.al-islam.org/al-serat/muta/4.htm)

The man can demand sex whenever he pleases and this is stipulated in the Mutah contract, which is binding on the woman after that. This is a right granted only to the man, and the woman has no right in that. We read:

"Moreover, the woman cannot demand a right to sexual intercourse in temporary marriage, a demand which is essential in the establishment of forswearing in permanent marriage. The only thing the woman may demand is the dower, to which she is entitled as a 'rented' woman. [18]"

(source:Al-Islam.org,http://www.al-islam.org/al-serat/muta/4.htm)

After reading this it really shocks me that any girl would remain Shia. May Allah save us from such a religion which exploits and defiles women for "pleasure" and "enjoyment".